mizpeh
09-22-2007, 01:28 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by mizpeh http://www.goodnewscafe.net/forums/images/styles/silverblue/buttons/viewpost.gif (http://www.goodnewscafe.net/forums/showthread.php?p=306497#post306497)
The Son of God is the man, Jesus Christ. Luke 1:35 This verse in saying that the Son was manifested did not say 'manifested IN THE FLESH' because the Son was already in the flesh. Here are a couple other translations that may help you:
Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil. ESV
the one who practices sin is of the devil; for the devil has sinned from the beginning. The Son of God appeared for this purpose, to destroy the works of the devil. NASB
Miz, any Christian, even babes in Christ will tell you that Jesus Christ came for the purpose to take away our sins. Every scholars I have read confirms that these verses are speaking of the incarnation. Not to mention the plain reading of the text. If you have another scholar that you can show, I would be willing to read what he has to say. However, the context tells us the true story, and anyone who takes scripture at face value will admit that these verses are speaking about Jesus coming in the flesh. I trust in the context as it is written. I will show you why below. Lets view the context...
1Jo 3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin. 1Jo 3:6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.
1Jo 3:7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.
1Jo 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
Interesting enough, your interpretation of these verses is exactly what John was trying to refute. You might want to think about that.
John goes on to say in 1 John 4...
1Jo 4:2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God;
1Jo 4:3 and every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God; this is the spirit of the antichrist, of which you have heard that it is coming, and now it is already in the world.
Miz, the purpose of Johns letter was to refute the teaching that Jesus did not come in the flesh. While I know you do believe that Jesus was manifested in the flesh, but your understanding of these verses goes against the purpose of the letter itself.
__________________
Originally Posted by mizpeh http://www.goodnewscafe.net/forums/images/styles/silverblue/buttons/viewpost.gif (http://www.goodnewscafe.net/forums/showthread.php?p=306497#post306497)
The Son of God is the man, Jesus Christ. Luke 1:35 This verse in saying that the Son was manifested did not say 'manifested IN THE FLESH' because the Son was already in the flesh. Here are a couple other translations that may help you:
Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil. ESV
the one who practices sin is of the devil; for the devil has sinned from the beginning. The Son of God appeared for this purpose, to destroy the works of the devil. NASB
Miz, any Christian, even babes in Christ will tell you that Jesus Christ came for the purpose to take away our sins. Every scholars I have read confirms that these verses are speaking of the incarnation. Not to mention the plain reading of the text. If you have another scholar that you can show, I would be willing to read what he has to say. However, the context tells us the true story, and anyone who takes scripture at face value will admit that these verses are speaking about Jesus coming in the flesh. I trust in the context as it is written. I will show you why below. Lets view the context...
1Jo 3:5 And ye know that he was manifested to take away our sins; and in him is no sin. 1Jo 3:6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.
1Jo 3:7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.
1Jo 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
Interesting enough, your interpretation of these verses is exactly what John was trying to refute. You might want to think about that.
John goes on to say in 1 John 4...
1Jo 4:2 By this you know the Spirit of God: every spirit that confesses that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God;
1Jo 4:3 and every spirit that does not confess Jesus is not from God; this is the spirit of the antichrist, of which you have heard that it is coming, and now it is already in the world.
Miz, the purpose of Johns letter was to refute the teaching that Jesus did not come in the flesh. While I know you do believe that Jesus was manifested in the flesh, but your understanding of these verses goes against the purpose of the letter itself.
__________________